If the number of people in the upper middle increases by 1 million, and the number of people in the lower- and mid- decrease by 1 million, then the size of the middle class did not change at all.
Let's assume that for a moment; where, specifically, did that 1 mio go? Is it safe to assume they "moved" from low/mid to high?
Why did the low/mid shrink in the first place? Was there nobody below to "fill up"? Why didn't they?
What just happened is a chasm was created, right in the middle of what used to be called "middle class". Essentially, this just means that thenpr
If the number of people in the upper middle increases by 1 million, and the number of people in the lower- and mid- decrease by 1 million, then the size of the middle class did not change at all.
Let's assume that for a moment; where, specifically, did that 1 mio go? Is it safe to assume they "moved" from low/mid to high?
Why did the low/mid shrink in the first place? Was there nobody below to "fill up"? Why didn't they?
What just happened is a chasm was ceated, right where "middle class" used to be -- i.e. obliteraing intermediate levels of wealth. (The fact that there's now a larger "upper middle class", as opposed to "lower upper class", is just semantics).
If the upper increased by 1 million and the rest decreased by 500k, then the middle class grew.
No, it's the same principle as above, just with slightly different numbers.
You see, "middle" is not some clean category, like "pineapple" or "red". It's whatever remains between the very poor and very, very rich. When latter rise, but former don't fall, it's always a polarisation of "middle class", regardless of someone else might choose to frame it. And that is always a tell of bad economy.