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Comment Re:Because they can (Score 1) 482

internet, cable TV, etc. are sold this way

No, they aren't.

Comcast doesn't give you a free TV or computer if you promise not to cancel for two years and pay more than folks who already have the device.

And as long as all or most sellers have similar plans and prices, they can get away with it.

This, though, is correct. It is easy for "competitors" to collude against the consumer. For example, if AT&T raises prices in a way which is irrational unless Verizon does the same, Verizon and AT&T can collude to raise prices in their entire industry without any direct communication or signalling.

Comment Re:Not that complicated ... (Score 1) 482

Can't afford that $700 smart phone? No problem, get it on credit.

convenient monthly payments (which you may still not be able to afford) solves your problem.

This is contradictory. If credit lets me buy the phone outright (and then save more than the cost of the phone on reduced service fees over two years), why would I need a subsidized phone or an installment plan?

Easy credit doesn't explain why people accept grossly higher costs for contract phones. Instead, it raises the question: why don't people use credit to amortize the up-front cost of the phone, and then save money on service fees?

Comment Re:Let's save Bennett some time (Score 1) 482

Also, "Chevy" gas and "Ford" gas contain different additives (wired vs. wireless) so they "aren't competitors" even though they basically sell the same products: cars and fuel.

Pretending not to be in competition with other firms in the essentially the same markets is another method for fixing prices.

Comment Re:And the US could turn Russia into vapor (Score 1) 878

Fair enough. It's just that since redeeming public debts has no impact on private net financial assets except for the loss of future interest income, any consequences of a drastically larger QE program would probably have more to do with institutional risk assessments than, say, consumer price adjustments.

Comment Re:Possible exception to the "law"... (Score 2) 194

the assumption that the current physical laws and constants were true then. By definition, they weren't - the four fundamental forces did not assert themselves until a finite period of time

If they didn't "assert themselves," does that imply that they did exist? I think that this way of speaking is a little confusing, because we believe that current "laws" represent special cases of more general laws, rather than different laws entirely.

If nothing had mass at the instant of the Big Bang, how does Einstein's theory of Relativity apply? Objects become infinitely massless as their speed approaches c?

Massless particles inherently move at c. They can't be accelerated or decelerated because they have no inertia, although they do have momentum.

As far as we know, this was just as true right after the big bang. Particles, or field excitations or whatever, had no mass, and moved at c. They did have energy, and an energy density, and therefore were gravitationally attracted. This attraction would be described by quantum gravity, instead of General Relativity.

Once the particles acquired mass via the Higgs mechanism (probably at or about the same time that the modern-day forces became completely separated), the universe was still an ultra-hot quark plasma, so the newly massive particles still moved very rapidly. Just not at c.

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