Both you and the GP are following a fairly Eurocentric perspective though. I mean, you even note sugar as a luxury, but the reason it was a luxury in Europe was because sugar cane did not grow well there and, as you note, sugar beets weren't a thing yet, so the sugar they did have was part of the spice trade from areas where sugar cane and the other spice plants grew. There was heavy sugar production a thousand years ago in the middle east (where they basically invented the modern idea of dessert). China had heavy sugar production around the same time. India was producing sugar at high levels over two thousand years ago. Observations of the health risks of excessive sugar consumption such as diabetes goes back over two thousand years.
Production in the Caribbean lead to high availability in Europe through an increase of what we would today call vertical integration. Instead of having to deal with trade through the Middle East and numerous middle men, Europeans owned the plantations, the people working on them, the refineries, and the transportation networks. So, through mercantalism, slavery, and just general exploitation all around, cheap granular sugar came to Europe, but it was not the first time in history that it was widely available to populations.
Adding sweeteners to foods does go back thousands of years even in Europe though. The ancient Romans, for example, often used a calorie-free, non-nutritive artificial sweetener. Of course, it was lead acetate, so it had some health problems of its own.