No, it's your binary nature that indicates a "religious" sort of attitude. It's either accept my beliefs or you must be part of the other side.
That's just in your head though. Quite aside from being base hypocrisy. I've already said I can accept that it's possible you don't consider yourself MAGA. In other words, I am clearly not adopting a binary position. My position though, is that you clearly are parroting almost exclusively MAGA talking points. I stand by that, because it is quite obvious.
No duh. I have never claimed that it is. You're the one hypocritically insisting that I am tethered to some false dichotomy paradigm.
I am not 100% sure what you are trying to say there. Politically, he obviously isn't. He was a Republican, a member of the Independance party (note, that's not an Independent, it's a political party), a Democrat, an independent, and a Republican again. He's a chameleon politically. As a Republican President and candidate, he has taken actions and made statements that cross pretty much every political line that comes up: anti-abortion, pro-abortion, pro-2nd amendment, anti-second amendment ("I like taking the guns early... Take the gun first, go through due process second"), anti-war, pro-war, capitalist, marxist, fascist, authoritarian, pro-democracy, anti-democracy, etc., etc. He has no solid political positions that are guaranteed. The only guaranteed positions he will take related to those things that benefit him directly.
This is why partisanship is a stupid accusation to make towards me. I have never been an adherent of most Republican/US Conservative positions. Not the social ones, generally. Most of the fiscal ones either, though I am generally in favor of free trade (a position that Republicans have always been heavily insistent on and heavily promoted... except now suddenly it's "globalism" and bad and all the fault of the "other side"). Of course, now the classic Republican party is basically dead and they have few coherent positions. It's not all due to Trump, of course. Whatever has been going on with the Republican party has been going on since at least Gingrich and company. Part of the big tent strategy really. Even classic Republican partisans have been realizing slowly that their party is gone, or at least in a coma while the MAGA party is ascendant. I am not a partisan for the Democrats. I have leanings towards liberal ideologies, libertarian ideologies (not so much US libertarians who mostly seem to be gun nuts who don't want to pay taxes), some conservative ideologies, etc., etc. Ultimately, I am a pragmatist who sees most "-isms" as deontological traps. As such, within the current broken electoral system in the US, which limits real choice, the Democrats are the clear "lesser evil" out of the viable (there are really only the two) choices. They best align (still fairly poorly) with how I believe government should be run and my tax dollars should be spent.
Rejecting one side is not an endorsement of the other. Both are often full of shit.
Yet, somehow, you keep regurgitating the shit that comes out of just one of those parties. Are you surprised that people conclude that, despite your claims, you really are basically just a MAGA?
I am not speaking for you, I am correcting your bad guesses and mistakes
I was literally replying to you writing: "Nope. Independents notice it all the time." referring to the made up "Trump Derangement Syndrome". That's you speaking for independents, a group that includes me, as if they were a homogeneous group that all think alike.
You provide party line misrepresentations, and when these are not accepted you accuse others of being mega. Such binary thinking is very atypical of an independent.
What was the misrepresentation? In what way was I supposedly misrepresenting things? Also, you're just dodging that you still don't seem to be able to give specific examples.
Not on lawfare. Obama, then Biden, used gov't in an attempt to persuade voters to ignore a presidential candidate. That's fine for political parties, not gov't itself.
Sorry, I'm confused... actually, that's just a turn of phrase, it's your answer that's confused. You seem to have simply dodged addressing the chronology. When Obama was first elected, he was running against McCain. Remember McCain? While there were some personal attacks from the Obama campaign against McCain, they were pretty much exclusively counterattacks attacking the attacks that McCain's campaign was making against Obama. There were no legal actions. As for investigations of the 2016 election. There were no public claims of Trump campaign collusion from the DOJ, etc. before Trump was actually already elected, just general information about Russian interference in the election (which we know for a fact happened, and you have admitted was real, even if you dismiss the scale of it as minor).
Citing Mueller's repeated claims of no collusion with the campaign, party, or Trump himself is not name dropping. Its citing what Mueller wrote.
But you haven't actually cited anything! Is it that you don't know how this works? Do you not know what citing is? It doesn't mean (to paraphrase my impression of what you are doing): "there's this document, I think it agrees with me." The fact of the matter is that the Mueller report never claimed there was no Russian collusion with the Trump campaign. Not once. It very specifically says that the term collusion is not a legal term, so it avoids it. That is very much not a claim of "no collusion". What it did say is that there were "numerous links between the Russian government and the Trump campaign" and that the Trump campaign "expected it would benefit electorally". The claim that the Mueller report claimed "no collusion" originated with Barr and Fox news amplification, not from the report itself. This is yet another indication that your claim that you get your information from "primary sources" rather than right-wing main stream media doesn't hold water.
It would be far better for you to stray outside your silo and google it yourself. You could learn something.
Asking someone to look up some undefined, ambiguous piece of information for you that supposedly proves your point is not a rational argument, it's mental illness.
Nope. I'm able to state the left, right, and independent perspectives of various issues.
Aside from the fact that you seem to think that the "left, right, and independent perspectives" are three distinct things, I need to point out here that you are talking about "perspectives" I was talking about actual supporting facts and arguments. I am getting worried that you don't actually know the difference.
And then being rather close minded and willfully ignorant, refusing to do a google yourself.
Google for the supporting argument for _your_ position because you won't provide one!
Nope. "Lawfare" was used in the context of government officials and agents being the law and procedure and norms to manufacture a narrative they knew to be false. Not to get a conviction, but to deter voters from supporting a candidate.
The easy test of whether is was an illegitimate investigation or just a political scheme was if they got successful, legitimate prosecutions. Oh, it turns out they got a bunch of them.
The facts speak for themselves. Those prosecuted were overwhelmingly prosecuted for lying to federal agents, not over any collusion with Russians. That just the false conflation the dem party uses to mislead people.
Yep. Because that's what innocent people do all the time. Lie to law enforcement. Sure, it will get them thrown in prison, but it's worth it to... um... to... darn, what's the reason for an innocent person to lie to federal agents in an investigation again? There's got to be some legitimate reason, right? Plus you're simply sweeping aside the convictions for actually being agents of a foreign government.
Now you conflate things to mislead. Again, very TDS like behavior, not so much independent behavior. The potential charges are with respect to obstructing an investigation. That is something separate
Oh, got it. Obstructing an investigation has nothing whatsoever. Let's try a thought experiment. How about obstructing a murder investigation. If someone provides a false alibi for a murder subject, the resulting obstruction of justice charge would have nothing to do with the murder? It's completely separate? Oh, sure that's totally not crazy.
A Clinton attorney misrepresented himself to the FBI. Misrepresented the document's origin as paid research from foreign assets.
Check your "primary sources". I am pretty sure you are talking about Sussmann. He was tried by Durham, btw, and was acquitted in a case that was not about the Steele dossier, but about potential Trump ties to Alfa bank. That had nothing to do with the FISA warrants where the Steele Dossier was used for probable cause aside from the fact that Durham was broadly investigating both.
At this point, I think we need to clear something up. The Steele Dossier was used only for very specific FISA warrants into Russian collusion by one individual: Carter Page. Page was already under investigation as a potential foreign agent before he ever appeared in the Steele Dossier, it was just used as additional motivation for probable cause. While he wasn't convicted, there's a lot suspicious, including him being quoted as saying that he was an informal advisor for the Russians.
Also, I should point out that, even if a Clinton attorney fraudulently presenting it to the FBI were actually a thing, that would have nothing to do with it being presented to the court. There's this thing called mens rea. It's not fraud if the person presenting it isn't doing so fraudulently. Warrants are held to be valid all the time when informants turn out to be lying. It's whether the person applying for the warrant knew or should have known that they were lying that's the issue.
They used it to defraud a FISA judge to get a warrant.
How do you not understand that the warrant application is not the actual trial. It comes before the indictment. The context is that it was not used in court in the actual criminal trial where a different standard of evidence exists.
Again, BS stats, Stats 101 caveat, "all other things being equal". 99.97% of cases are not bootstrapped with fraudulent evidence.
First of all, it is a highly dubious claim that there is never any "fraudulent evidence" except in 0.03% of warrant applications. Aside from that, you are, yet again, either misunderstanding or intentionally misstating the claim. The claim is that 99.97% (although I used higher precision and this is rounded up) of FISA warrant applications, the warrant is granted, indicating an extraordinarily low bar for granting warrants (also note that the tiny fraction rejected probably only needed minor amendment to be accepted).
Look at that last sentence. If it is "BS" as you claim, find the number of FISA application warrants and the number of them granted and work out the percentage yourself. Am I off by a factor of more than 0.1%?
DOJ said the dossier was too unreliable to bring before a judge. The Pro-Reistance FBI officials brought it before a judge and misrepresented it.
Another unsubstantiated, ambiguous, uncited claim. The "DOJ" said that? Who at the DOJ? A spokesperson working for Trump? Other? Also, ambiguous. What does it mean to "bring before a judge"? What is the context? If it is a criminal trial, then sure. If it is as supporting probable cause evidence in a warrant application to a FISA court, then no, it's not. Far less reliable information is brought all the time.
Again, you tout the party info silo. Step ousted, google, read things from independent sources. Gov't sources even.
I am sure there are crazies outside this thread who claim it is "fraudulent". The context was in this thread. I understand that information presented as unverified raw intelligence is only "fraudulent" if it isn't actually unverified raw intelligence. It very much was exactly what it claimed to be, so it is not "fraudulent". Neither Clinton, McCain, or any of the funders of the dossier ever brought any legal claims of fraud against Steele.
Actually FISA judges have stated they would not have accepted the dossier had they known its true origin. The judges say it was misrepresented to them.
They did not state that specifically. They made some face saving statements about metadata related to the Dossier not being provided. There was a complaint that a heightened sense of candor was expected in FISA warrant applications. It was all nonsense since they went right back to rubber stamping them. The fact of the matter is that two out of four warrants specifically for Carter Page and only for Carter Page were invalidated. It had no effect on the rest of the investigation, or on any criminal trials. It's ultimately a big nothing burger.
It's a straw man because you substitute a different defendable scenario for the actual undependable scenario.
You're confusing a list of the kinds of evidence that are regularly accepted in courts, including FISA courts as probable cause for a warrant. I did not substitute that scenario for the scenario of the Steele Dossier. I provided that as one example of the type of evidence normally accepted and then gave specific reasons why the Steele Dossier would actually meet and exceed that typical standard. Consider. A police informant is almost always a criminal, and usually a desperate one. Steele was an intelligence consultant who formerly worked for British Intelligence. A police informant mostly gives up dribs and drabs of information that they overheard or on what the criminal orders (that they followed) were. An intelligence agent collects information from a broad array of sources in which they are normally not directly involved (some intelligence agents are, of course, spies working undercover, but Steele was not in this case). A criminal informant may be informing for the money and, quite frankly, often they need the money for their next fix. An intelligence consultant is working for the money too and, while they also might need the consultancy fee for their next fix, it's less likely and they are generally a lot more professional. If they are not doing it for the money, then criminal informants are usually doing it for immunity for crimes they have committed, are currently committing and will comitt in the future, not to mention sometimes to eliminate the competition so that they can commit worse crimes (for example, Whitey Bulger). An intelligence consultant is not normally doing any of that. That is not a straw man.
FISA judges say otherwise. Unreliable evidence was false presented to them as being credible.
FISA judges have never referred to it as fraud. Most of the complaints from Judges were about details external to the dossier itself. They are also just a little bit of noise about things that FISA warrant applicants do all the time and just get a rubber stamp for. The FISA courts are very secretive and largely unaccountable most of the time. They have released a number of generalized, aggregate statements about severe problems with evidence provided by applicants in many cases, but the statistics show that they granted the warrants in virtually all (if not all) of those cases all the same.
Nope. Warrants approved assumes the evidence behind the warrants were credible Stats 101 failure on your part. "all other things being equal fails".
As I just pointed out, the FISA judges have actually pointed out that they are given not credible evidence by applicants a lot. The statistics still show that they essentially always approve the warrants anyway. Rejection is vanishingly rare.
Nope. It was an example of lawfare. Gov't pro-Resistance agents acting to persuade voters against a candidate, not actually convict the candidate.
But what you were supposed to be responding to was about agents of a foreign government. You just changed the subject to avoid dealing with the actual topic in that part of the conversation.
It was investigate, and Mueller found it to be insignificant in scale, unlikely to have altered the outcome of the election
Since people were convicted and sentenced for it, it was not insignificant and you are just dodging there in any case. You are attacking the legitimacy of an investigation that found wrongdoing. You can wave away the actual crimes if you like, but you can't pretend that they did not exist and crimes, especially around a topic like potential espionage, require investigation. Also, for someosne who keeps claiming to be a non-partisan independent - in other words, essentially neutral - seems to keep taking things from the Mueller report that were neutral conclusions and turning them into supposed statements in the affirmative or negative. The Mueller report was specific that it was not making a claim either way that Russian interference affected the election either way.
Money was spent attacking Hillary, Bernie, and Trump.
The ACA report, the bipartisan senate intelligence committee report, and the Mueller report all indicate that Trump was Russia's favored candidate, regardless of other activity. All credible assessments have shown that. Even Trump tacitly admitted that the Russians had hacked the Clinton campaign when he publicly asked them to hack her emails.
Never claimed it did. Just that it repeated claimed no evidence of collusion.
Which it very explicitly does not claim! It is hard to tell at this point if you are lying or misinformed or just truly unable to grasp the concepts involved. The Mueller report was explicit that it was not making any claims one way or another about "collusion".