If true - how is this not a flagrant antitrust violation?
Company X provides a device that collects personal data.
Company X announces a standard that prevents anyone from using such data for purposes such as advertising without the user's consent.
Company X exempts its own services from this restriction, such that its services - which otherwise compete on par with third-party services - can utilize such data notwithstanding, or even contrary to, the user's explicit withholding of consent.
Company X's services therefore have an unfair competitive advantage that is directly leveraged on Company X's sale of the device to users.
This is pretty much the definition of unfair competition in the form of tying, If the FTC / DoJ Antitrust Division had any teeth and, er, other body parts, it would be all over this.