Comment Re:Religions codify survival info ... (Score 1) 755
'Before the modern period, Jews, Christians and Muslims all relished highly allegorical interpretations of scripture. The word of God was infinite and could not be tied down to a single interpretation.
And then literacy happened.
God spoke to Moses in the language and culture of the time, communicating in the way that the people of his generation would understand. Hebrew is a language full of metaphores and death, while not the literal meaning, was indicative of the severity of the consequences.
Really though, it beggars the imagination to think that the very specific lnguage isn't being specific. That you just get together with like minded people and decide that when he said kill these people he didn't mean kill them.
As for allegory, I can handle that easily, much of th bible is clearly allegory, and it is fun to watch the fundies trip all over themselves trying to say that the flood happened exactly as described or Usher's declaration of the age of earth was the word of god. taking a human's calculations as the undisputed word of their god, then come up with variable speed of light and other easily disproven ideas in support of that canard.
When you read the scripture it in context it is very clear. When you take words out of context and splice them together its muddled.
Your explanation sounds like a manual that tells you to plug a 12 volt DC device into a 120 VAC socket, it blows up the device, and you say the author didn't really mean you were supposed to plug it into a 120 VAC socket, but that 12 volts DC is less voltage than 2400 VAC, or than a lightning strike. That the author of the maunal wanted you to keep the device out ot th rain.
When you take a translation from one language and culture to an entirely different one, the meanings can be lost.
I've heard that one before. It's just saying that unless I learn to read Hebrew, I'll always have to have the bible interpreted for me. That's pretty handy.
When you take it from a source known to have intentional changes that corrupt the scripture for political reasons, then you lack any substance to argue with.
It would appear that all versions have something that says the same thing, nothing ambiguous. Except for that Hebrew version that someone has to tell me what it says. Note I do a little bit of that already.I have King James, and Douay versions of the bible, a legacy of my strict Catholic upbringing, and my Southern Baptist Grandparents. Given that the online versions match my two references, I have good confidence of the others.
All read basically the same, with a few words here or there different. The common thread is kill, put to death, stone with stones. Interestingly enough, a quick perusal through an online Hebrew bible in English on the web - Leviticus 20 looks much like the King James Version. Checking another version because I am not terribly familiar with Torah, smae thing (chabad.org and machine-mamre.org.
And please, I was brought up strict Catholic, and even entertained the idea of becoming a priest, but as the joke in bad taste goes, I wasn't gay. But seriously - I do know the difference between allegory, and specificity.
The idea that it says in the bible that (essentially pi = 3 isn't proof of any malfeasance or error on a Supreme being's part, it's just an example of a mistake somewhere along the line. It is a little amusing to see the aptdance the literalists try yo put on it though.
The prophets denounce literalistic views. They tell us that it goes against the meaning of the word if a man intentionally sins with the expectation that paying the sacrificial offering is all that God wants for absolution.
Now there is an interesting thought. Would it then therefore follow that a man who "believes in God" as a matter of hedging his bet - so to speak - is doing something very similar?
One is supposed to take delight in studying and trying to understand the word of God. To simply skim and take a few sentances without understanding them, and then asserting to know what God's message is.. well that's beyond arrogant. Its offensive.
Most very sorry that you find me offensive. I would note that I am not ignorant of the bible, but that you just choose to interpret something I cannot find a way of not taking at face value. If direct commands that are shared across the various versions of the bible and torah are so virtually identical, then the amount of interpretation needed to say that a proscription and often reinforce orders to kill kill for the offenses that it distinctly and unambiguously says to kill for, makes it very difficult to take the whole thing seriously. In addition, if the original hebrew says something different, either through mis-translation or cultural differences, why isn't it fixed? If they meant cast out, they could say it, although "cut off" no doubt means the same thing.
But if something as unambiguous as a direct command must be ignored, then what on earth can be taken at face value?