"All versions of English spoken in areas of white native-speaking descent have a very high phonemic similarity."
This is not only not true (scots dialect is as 'white' as you could get and it's quite possibly the furthest outlier in the language)
When I say "versions of English" I mean "versions of Modern English". Scots is a language that diverged from English at the very beginning of the Middle period, if not before. "English" as we know it didn't exist then.
even if were true it would be pointless. Are you really implying that only *white* English speakers contribute to our literature? Please. You cannot be serious.
Sorry, I missed a vitally important word there: "areas of majority white native-speaking descent". My point is that in areas where colonists were in the majority, English was preserved more or less intact, and the imported slaves, the free immigrants and the locals learned from their pattern. The children of the non-natives then still had exposure to the native pattern, and spoke better than their parents. In such a situation, the non-native errors disappear within a couple of generations (you can see this in any immigrant community in any country and any language).
I was using white as a shorthand, because when you go to India or Oceania, you can see immediately that the population isn't descended from the colonists by the colour of their skin, and their English is markedly different, because it has turned what began as non-native errors into a part of their language variety.
There are even areas in the US where true "communities" persist based on colour, and there -- guess what? Strong dialectal differences persist, and black speech even has its own name: ebonics. These modes of speech are in no way inferior to standard English, but sadly society as a whole judges them to be so.
So no, I'm not saying that only white English speakers contribute to English-language literature. I am not racist (although my poor wording may have suggested otherwise). I was simply pointing to the fact that the ratio of native speakers to non-natives is what determines whether the language changes or remains the same.
That's because the natural way to coherently link the tangled mass of local phonologies together into a single written standard is to walk back the historical developments, providing written phonemes that represent the ancient root from which the diverse modern pronunciations stem.
You talk about dropped 'r's? That's barely even scratching the surface. There are dozens of different 'r's which are used by different dialects, in different environments, and when 'dropped' they are usually actually converted into another phoneme, or trigger a conversion of a neighboring phoneme...
"Dozens of different 'r's"... but they are all still Rs. If I write R, I don't care which R you use, I happily recognise it as an R. That's what a phoneme is -- it's a meaningful unit of sound that can be pronounced in multiple different ways. When the R reduces to the point that it turns the vowel before it into an "eugh" sound, it's still an R. I could write it as R, as , as , as &*, as anything -- it would still be one phoneme.
The mismatch between the written form and spoken is pretty much identical everywhere. The OU in "you" preserves an old form, but it's different from almost every other OU -- out, shout, etc. Rewriting "you" as "yoo" would not favour any dialectal variation over any other.
Sorry your scenario is the spurious one. Latin, as in Classical Latin, was spoken as a native language by no one, ever. It was always a literary language.
Spoken 'vulgate' latin was not a literary language and it was spoken all the way from Romania to Brittania at one time. The differences that develop have nothing to do with errors or failure to learn correctly just normal language change processes that affect all vernaculars.
I did not specify written Classical Latin. I was talking about Vulgar Latin. You assume that the differences in Vulgar Latin had "nothing to do with errors or failure to learn correctly", but that's a very unlikely situation. The Roman Empire grew at a phenomenal rate and conquered peoples with radically different languages. Then they threw those people together in legions and slave gangs, without taking the time to send them all to university to obtain a degree in the language. The Roman Empire at its height had a population in the hundreds of millions, but the number of actual Romans would never have been more than one million. Most of the subjects of Rome would never have had day-to-day contact with even one Roman citizen, so there was no convergent force to bring them back to the native model. The spoken vernacular can't have been "Latin" at all -- it would have been a series of Latin-based creoles.