Comment Re:further reason for a popular vote (Score 1) 642
Maybe I'm missing something but the effects of incumbency would scale linearly with the popular vote, meaning it can't account for the wasted votes by the Democrats in 2012. The reason for the difference in popular vote and seats won can then only lie in the makeup of the districts, and the Republicans were able to improve that by 7 seats since 2010. That seems significant, since the article agrees that Republicans already had an advantage before 2012. Now, I'm not claiming that all the gerrymandering is intentional electioneering by the Republicans, and I'm sure that most of it is just due to the natural congregation of Democrats in cities. But I don't see incumbency as a valid mechanism for this discrepancy.