Comment Re:Can both views be compatible? (Score 1) 953
Noticed that when I said "perfect instruction of righteousness", it wasn't quoted. I paraphrased the verse.
Now let me quote.
"... for instruction in righteousness: That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works."
I take that to mean that "the man of God", in this case someone who is writing, will be "perfect, thoroughly furnished unto all good works." I take that to mean he will be perfectly prepared to transcribe "for the "instruction of righteousness". As stated earlier in the verse, "All scripture is given by inspiration of God", and when put in context with the rest of the verse, as well as what I have quoted here, I concluded that God is speaking through the man, perfectly and clearly, so that the man may best be prepared in transcribing the word of God in all his good works.
If I am misinterpreting the verse, please enlighten me as to what the actual meaning of it is. If I am wrong, then I apologize for carrying this on. I am simply trying to explain and defend my reasoning.
Now let me quote.
"... for instruction in righteousness: That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works."
I take that to mean that "the man of God", in this case someone who is writing, will be "perfect, thoroughly furnished unto all good works." I take that to mean he will be perfectly prepared to transcribe "for the "instruction of righteousness". As stated earlier in the verse, "All scripture is given by inspiration of God", and when put in context with the rest of the verse, as well as what I have quoted here, I concluded that God is speaking through the man, perfectly and clearly, so that the man may best be prepared in transcribing the word of God in all his good works.
If I am misinterpreting the verse, please enlighten me as to what the actual meaning of it is. If I am wrong, then I apologize for carrying this on. I am simply trying to explain and defend my reasoning.
