Below is the link to the relevant section of the current act
Where did the words 'use of infringing copies' come from?
To save clicking, here's the main section:
107.
Criminal liability for making or dealing with infringing articles, &c.
â" (1) A person commits an offence who, without the licence of the copyright ownerâ"
(a) makes for sale or hire, or
(b) imports into the United Kingdom otherwise than for his private and domestic use, or
(c) possesses in the course of a business with a view to committing any act infringing the copyright, or
(d) in the course of a business â"
(i) sells or lets for hire, or
(ii) offers or exposes for sale or hire, or
(iii) exhibits in public, or
(iv) distributes, or
(e) distributes otherwise than in the course of a business to such an extent as to affect prejudicially the owner of the copyright,
IANAL, but that reads that the only time I, as a private citizen, for private use infringe is if I sell/hire (a) or distribute to an extent which affects the owner (e). Possessing is only bad if it is in the course of business.
I can't find the line from the wikipedia in other articles on the web, and notably it's missing a reference to the relevant section of the act. http://www.statutelaw.gov.uk/content.aspx?LegType=All+Legislation&searchEnacted=0&extentMatchOnly=0&confersPower=0&blanketAmendment=0&sortAlpha=0&PageNumber=0&NavFrom=0&parentActiveTextDocId=0&activetextdocid=2250425&versionNumber=3
Beware the new TTY code!