I apologize for the delayed response. Yesterday was really busy and this has taken me some time to think through and answer.
If God is all-powerful then he could have made a universe full of people who are not sinners. He chose to, at the very least, allow sin to randomly come into the world, if it wasn't deliberately part of his plan. If he's all-powerful, then everything that happens, including people sinning, happens either because he wanted it to, or because he rolled a metaphorical die, shrugged and said "ok, I'll allow it".
Free will theodicies of course argue that free will is such a good thing that it would be worse to deny it than to allow its consequence, namely (they argue) the possibility of sin randomly (i.e. by nondeterministic so-called "free will") coming into the world. IIRC you've already said you reject such free-will theodicies (can I assume you're probably a Calvinist?), but even if not: those fail because they misconstrue what free will even is (randomness is not freedom), and so even if free will is an overriding good that could justify allowing the horrors that exist in the world if those were a necessary concession to it, they're not; if there were an all-powerful God, he could have made a universe full of free-willed people who were born as perfect saints and would never choose to sin, even though they could choose to sin if they had any reason to want to do so, which they wouldn't.
Yes, I do consider myself a Calvinist, so you need not attack this conception of free will.
Creating known-defective living creatures and then letting them suffer from their defects or worse still, actively punishing them instead of just fixing them, is not the act of an all-good, all-powerful being.
Previously, you stated
Yeah, sure, maybe there might conceivably be some good reason to allow some evil, but is it likely that there's good enough reason to allow this much evil?
These two statements are at odds. If the second statement you made is true then the first is false. When I gave you an answer to the second you went back to the first. Since the second still stands I will reiterate my point since you skipped it. God is just. Suffering and death are a penalty for sin. Is a judge just when he allows the murderer and rapist go free? There is none that is righteous. So to argue that a good God is unlikely to exist because unrighteous sinners suffer or die is to argue that God can not act according to his just character and still be just. The quantity of evil is simply irrelevant. Nobody is receiving injustice.
How do you know what God is like, what he wants, or what he says is moral, and how do you reconcile what you think you know in that regard with people of other religions who think they know that God is/wants/says something different? How is your religion not just as "arbitrarily" chosen as any non-religious ethical system? People, including religious people, have to pick, somehow, for whatever reasons, what they think is the right way to tell good from bad. None of them think their choice is arbitrary -- they all have their reasons -- and all of them think they've got the right answer, even though others disagree. Anyone who's not a moral nihilist will agree that at least one of them might have the right answer, even though others disagree.
The Christian knows simply because God reveals things about himself. I do see logical arguments for his attributes from philosophy, but ultimately I go to scripture. That of course brings the question: how do I know Christianity is the correct religion?
Consider the following passage:
Behold, my servant shall act wisely;
he shall be high and lifted up,
and shall be exalted.
14As many were astonished at you—
his appearance was so marred, beyond human semblance,
and his form beyond that of the children of mankind—
15so shall he sprinkle many nations;
kings shall shut their mouths because of him;
for that which has not been told them they see,
and that which they have not heard they understand.
53Who has believed what he has heard from us?
And to whom has the arm of the Lord been revealed?
2For he grew up before him like a young plant,
and like a root out of dry ground;
he had no form or majesty that we should look at him,
and no beauty that we should desire him.
3He was despised and rejected by men;
a man of sorrows, and acquainted with grief;
and as one from whom men hide their faces
he was despised, and we esteemed him not.
4Surely he has borne our griefs
and carried our sorrows;
yet we esteemed him stricken,
smitten by God, and afflicted.
5But he was pierced for our transgressions;
he was crushed for our iniquities;
upon him was the chastisement that brought us peace,
and with his wounds we are healed.
6All we like sheep have gone astray;
we have turned—every one—to his own way;
and the Lord has laid on him
the iniquity of us all.
7He was oppressed, and he was afflicted,
yet he opened not his mouth;
like a lamb that is led to the slaughter,
and like a sheep that before its shearers is silent,
so he opened not his mouth.
8By oppression and judgment he was taken away;
and as for his generation, who considered
that he was cut off out of the land of the living,
stricken for the transgression of my people?
9And they made his grave with the wicked
and with a rich man in his death,
although he had done no violence,
and there was no deceit in his mouth.
10Yet it was the will of the Lord to crush him;
he has put him to grief;
when his soul makes an offering for guilt,
he shall see his offspring; he shall prolong his days;
the will of the Lord shall prosper in his hand.
11Out of the anguish of his soul he shall see and be satisfied;
by his knowledge shall the righteous one, my servant,
make many to be accounted righteous,
and he shall bear their iniquities.
12Therefore I will divide him a portion with the many,
and he shall divide the spoil with the strong,
because he poured out his soul to death
and was numbered with the transgressors;
yet he bore the sin of many,
and makes intercession for the transgressors.
Now I think most people can read this passage and know who it is talking about. It's pretty specific.
- He is righteous (v11)
- He was rejected by men (v3)
- He was led to his slaughter (v7)
- He was killed despite his righteousness (v8-9)
- He was afflicted (4)
- He was pierced (v5)
- He was killed among the wicked (v9)
- Other people's sins were laid on him (v6)
- He intercedes for transgressors(v12)
- By knowledge of him, people are accounted righteous (v11)
There's a number of other things that could be pulled out of this text. I think this list is more than sufficient to make it clear who this text is concerning. It is about Jesus Christ. Now why would I use scripture to make a case for Christianity? This is a messianic passage from Isaiah. It was written 700 years before Christ. In 1947, the Great Isaiah Scroll was discovered as part of of the dead sea scrolls and is dated 1-4 centuries before Christ. I find that astounding. Many religions like to make claims of prophecies and they always end up either being extremely ambiguous or simply unverifiable as to whether it occurred before or after the event it is prophesying. This passage is certainly not ambiguous and the date is clearly preceding Christ's birth.
Another one I love, this time written a millennium before Christ, is Psalm 22. Christ says the very words of the first verse from the cross: “My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?”. Then in verse 8 it says “He trusts in the Lord; let him deliver him.” Christ was mocked in this same way at the crucifixion. V14 he is poured out like water – referencing when the spear went into his side and water came out. V16 “they have pierced my hands and feet” a clear reference to the crucifixion. Even the dividing of his garments and casting of lots is recorded in v18. V17 “I can count all my bones.” The other's being crucified had their bones broken, but Christ was already dead so they pierced his side instead. So we have again another very specific passage written before Christ's birth. This time however, it was written by a completely different author: King David.
There are many messianic passages and they show the true unity of scripture. Even in Genesis, right after the fall God says to the serpent that the seed of the woman shall bruise his head. Now I know this isn't a clear reference outside of Christian doctrine, but I also want to you to see that 66 books written over the course of more than 1000 years have the same message. What religion can claim this?
Who is coming? God is coming. Where? Bethlehem
Isaiah 9:6 says that a child will be born and his name shall be Mighty God. Isaiah 7:14 says that he will be born of a virgin and they shall call his name Immanuel (God with us). Micah 5:2 indicates that the one whose origins are from old will be born in Bethlehem
When is he coming?
Daniel 9 says 69 weeks (a week is 7 years and is commonly known this way) from the decree to rebuild Jerusalem and that he would be cut off and atone for iniquity before the temple would be destroyed (70AD). That date the decree went forth can be determined from Nehemiah 2. There is some disagreement over how to calculate the years, but the calculations always end up with Christ being cut off between 30-40 AD
Why is he coming?
Isaiah 53 above – For mans reconciliation with God. He was crushed for our iniquities
There are many other messianic prophecies as well.
No other religion has the consistency in text. Look at Islam, it has exegetical theory called abrogation since it can't remain consistent internally – something written by only one guy. Joseph smith also has troubles in this department, not to mention his failed prophecies and fake translation of the Book of Abraham from reformed hieroglyphics. No other religion is as verifiable historically. There are numerous references people and places and events through scripture. This alone is strong evidence for the writings of the new testament happening at the time it claims. The thousands of ancient manuscripts makes it the most well preserved ancient text of all time and closest to the time of it being written. If you reject the accuracy of the text you end up having to throw away all written history. Christ and almost all of the apostles were killed for the message. They had nothing earthly to gain from it. For centuries after Christ Christians were being martyred for their beliefs.
I don't even see the need to get into philosophical arguments against pantheism or polytheism. I don't see anything that even comes close to the messianic prophecies or historical record.
So back to your questions.
You ask how do I reconcile it with what people of other religions think. They are mutually exclusive. We can't both be right. Truth is absolute. Someone is wrong and its not a decision to make lightly.
You ask how is my decision not arbitrary. I have reasons to believe and I base them on objective facts. You are telling me there are multiple objective atheistic systems and one might be right. I'm not just deciding on which one sounds best to me or which one feels right. Nor am I simply deciding on something because I was raised that way. Thus far you haven't given a reason for an ethical system. I would like to hear a good objective basis for a specific ethical system according to your worldview.
All I'm saying is that there are some views, chosen from among the various differing views (including the different religions), according to which some things are objectively right and wrong regardless of whether or not any gods exist. It doesn't follow of logical necessity from the rejection of God's existence to the rejection of objective morality; there are other alternatives. There's disagreement about which alternative is right, sure, but there's disagreement among the religious about which religion is right too, and that's not automatically proof that they (either religions or secular ethical systems) are all wrong.
I'm not trying to say that disagreement means that they are all are wrong. I'm saying that it is not possible for multiple systems to be objective. If there is an objective system then all differing systems must be false and therefore not objective. You said “most ethical systems employed by most philosophers, such as deontology and utilitarianism, are both non-theistic and objective.” Calling two differing systems objective makes no sense. Maybe they can be objective internally, but without an objective reason to choose it you are not left with an absolute basis for morality. It is just choosing according to a system. It doesn't make it the right system. You can't call something wrong in anything but relative terms. You need to make an assertion of which system and why it is objective to claim that you have an absolute basis for morality.
That's not what I said. I said you're arguing for moral nihilism, period; albeit unintentionally. If you say "look, there's disagreement, therefore nobody's right or wrong about it" then you're arguing against all religious morals too because there's disagreement there too. I know you're not trying to do that, which is why I point it out; your argument leads to conclusions you would object to, therefore you should abandon the argument.
I am arguing for moral nihilism and it is intentional. Perhaps I wasn't clear in my argument so I hope the previous statements clarified it.
First of all, atheism is not equivalent to materialism, though I'll grant they're often found together.
I understand that it is not, but once you depart from materialism your worldview starts to seem much more religious and unsubstantiated. Buddhism for instance, is often described as atheistic. Many atheists, as you noted, are materialists which is why I brought up materialism.
But there are all kinds of different answers proposed to this question. I can't teach you the entire field of meta-ethics, but I can give you a brief overview of it, building out from your own divine command theory:
I appreciate the information. I love philosophy and you clearly are very familiar with these ideas. I have seen a number of these, but not all in one place. I am mostly concerned with your beliefs, however. And you even reject some of these in your descriptions.
These don't necessitate the existence of God, but this does run afoul of eliminative materialism, and turns into, at best (for the materialist) some kind of property dualism: even if only material things exist, they have properties other than their physical ones, namely moral ones. There are two epistemic stances within this view, about how we know those moral properties: one is "intuitionism", which holds that we have some innate, intuitive, intellectual grasp of what moral properties go with what kinds of things; and the other is "moral sense theory", which holds that we have some kind of nonphysical senses that can detect moral properties. I don't really buy this; too much spooky weirdness, raising more questions than it answers.
So if you reject dualism can I deduce that you are a materialist? If all that exists is matter, where does morality come from? Is it matter? How do you account for it? You claim it is universal so it can't be only in my mind. You have rejected that things have moral properties. What is it?
The scientific method is the correct method of adjudicating disagreements on matters of description, of belief, of facts
The scientific method relies on the uniformity of nature. How do you know that the future will be like the past? Do you have an answer for Hume or Russel?
appealing very carefully and thoroughly to our common, shared experiences
Can you clarify this? Perhaps with an example?
Liberalism and phenomenalism follow pretty trivially from objectivism and criticism jointly, but I have a special argument for objectivism and criticism; or rather, equivalently, against nihilism and fideism. In any endeavor, if you don't try, you will probably fail. You might be doomed to fail anyway, but if there were any chance to succeed, to seize that chance you must try. If you assume that success is impossible, you won't try; so, if you don't know whether or not success is possible, if you're starting out in complete ignorance, you have to assume success if possible or else you almost guarantee, by not trying, that it won't be, even if it could have been had you tried. Conversely, if you assume that success is inevitable, you won't try -- why bother, it's going to happen anyway -- and so, perversely, you will almost guarantee failure. In matters of trying to adjudicate between differing opinions, be they descriptive or prescriptive, if we start out in complete ignorance (or wind up there via an infinite regress, just saying "prove it" to each other forever every time one another offers a justification for the previous thing challenged), if we want to have any hope of figuring out what is the right answer, we have to try to figure it out, which can only be done by assuming that there is some correct answer to be found -- contra nihilism -- but not assuming that any particular answer is already the right one -- contra fideism. That gives you objectivism and criticism, which give you liberalism and phenomenalism, which together break down along descriptive/prescriptive lines into the critical empirical realism that is the scientific method, and its moral analogue, liberal hedonic altruism.
I'll have to chew on this a bit, but it sounds like a very philosophized version of “you can't succeed if you don't try.” I think it is a noble way to approach things, but some things are just not realistic. No matter how hard I concentrate, I am not going to be able to fly. You can't find something that is immaterial and universal in a materialistic worldview. It's a contradiction.
You still misunderstand. The moral nihilist doesn't have to agree that there is such a thing as evil to use the argument, only to point out that your belief in evil in the world contradicts your belief in an all-good (and all-knowing and all-powerful) God. The moral nihilist might very well concede that there's some kind of all-knowing all-powerful thing, that does whatever it wants and that's whatever because there is (he says) no morality at all, but then he hears you talking about your version of that thing being all-good, and yet also talking about things in the world being evil, and he says to you "Wait, if you think this all-knowing all-powerful thing is all-good, how can you think that anything is evil? Wouldn't everything have to be good, if there was such a being? So either everything is good, or your God isn't all-good, or maybe he's not all-powerful and just couldn't help it... or he's not all-knowing and doesn't know there's a problem... or, you know, there's no such thing as good and evil. But either way, you're wrong."
I do understand. The nihilist has to import his own conception of evil to make the argument. In my mind, it is not evil for God to allow the existence of a world in which evil will happen. So to argue that God is evil, is to use a different conception of evil. He can't argue against consistency without making moral judgments that I do not hold. So he is showing me that he does believe in evil and unintentionally destroys his own worldview. Nihilists are trying to be consistent in philosophy, but end up being inconsistent in their heart.