Comment Re:April fools (Score 3, Interesting) 470
But I am serious! Gay butt sex between loving men is fine for Gentiles [== not(Jews)] post-Jesus. For while it is written in the Law of Moses that
If a man lies with a man as one lies with a woman, both of them have done what is detestable. They must be put to death; their blood will be on their own heads. - Leviticus 20:13
it is also written in the New Testament that
[The council concluded] we should not make it difficult for the Gentiles who are turning to God [by requiring them to follow the whole Law of Moses]. Instead we should write to them, telling them to abstain from food polluted by idols, from sexual immorality, from the meat of strangled animals and from blood." - Acts 15:5, 19-20
Now sexual immorality is a rather vague phrase which I take to mean rape and generally non-consensual sex. You might be a little confused by the scattered references to homosexuality in Paul's letters which seem to imply that homosexuality is sexually immoral. However,
Neither the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers nor male prostitutes nor homosexual offenders
discusses homosexual offenders, that is, people who break the law. Since sodomy is not illegal in my country, we're fine there. Next,
What a cop out. The above quote in Leviticus 20:13, sets the law from God. Arguing that it isn't against the law of USA doesn't mean anything to the "kingdom of God". You could argue that in some African country it is legal to rape and kill, and hence "we're fine there", Next.
For the law was not intended for people who do what is right. It is for people who are lawless and rebellious, who are ungodly and sinful, who consider nothing sacred and defile what is holy, who kill their father or mother or commit other murders. The law is for people who are sexually immoral, or who practice homosexuality,
Here one must practice homosexuality for it to be a sin. The people I was imagining weren't actively practicing their technique; they simply did what came naturally. Some translations don't even list sodomy/homosexuality here, so the interpretation is also debatable. Finally we have,
Here one must practice killing their father for it to be a sin. If you only do it once then it isn't a sin because you only killed your father once. About "what came naturally": The argument here is that homosexuality isn't normal. The argument goes along the lines of a male is designed for a female. and the union there of is a symbol of the relationship of God to Jews and Jesus to Gentiles. Because some closed closet homos decided to rewrite verse to make homos not listed there, doesn't subtract to what was written.
This one is trickier to interpret correctly. What is an "indecent act" or a "natural relation"? For gay men, an indecent or unnatural act would be sex with a woman.
I call BS on that. There isn't Male, Female, Gay, Les, there are only Male & Female. For a gay man it's still an unnatural act even if he prefers & love doing it.
The men under discussion were essentially going "gay for pay". Again, the men I was thinking about were completely gay for each other.
[On a serious note, I have no idea how some modern denominations rationalize away the above passages. I certainly wasn't able to without just calling the whole thing a load of crap.]
BTW, As a Christian, I love the gay man but I dont want him to butt fuck me. (Love the man, not the sin) I am very surprise you can quote all these passages yet fail to understand that a gay man isn't a natural thing. You really want to have gay as some natural 3rd choice from Male & Female. and that desire it corrupting your interpretation of the verses. I just thought I should provide an counter argument to your views and (IMO poor) arguments.