The study doesn't claim a direction for the causality- it merely points out the correlation.
The study briefly admits that, but then they go out of their way and use language that for most people reading it would have the opposite meaning: "For the first generation that was exposed to digital tools, their use is associated with better cognitive functioning" and "This is a more hopeful message than one might expect given concerns about brain rot, brain drain, and digital dementia" and "they found that using a computer, smartphone, the internet or some combination of these was associated with a lower risk of cognitive impairment"
The problem is, none of these statements are true. They did not check groups that have never used smartphones against group that have. They only proved some correlation that is pretty obviously not causation. Claiming "lower risk" is flawed. FWIW, instinctively I am not a fan of the digital dementia hypothesis, but this meta-analysis claims to prove things that it doesn't.
Women wouldn't be voting, gays would still be in the closet or in prison, and slavery would still exist in America. If you have a problem with the first amendment, go tuck yourself.
-jcr
I am no expert in US law, but I see that the 1st Amendment was adopted in 1791, while women earned the right to vote with the 19th amendment which was ratified in 1920, after 70 years of protest by women. Equal rights for gays were an even more recent development. One can argue, that the 1st Amendment has less to do with those rights than the sociopolitical context in which they were earned. Additionally, there was an entire war (partly) to abolish slavery, so one can also assume that it was not just the 1st Amendment at work there. I really don't see the logic in your argument that gay rights, women voting, and the end of slavery are a direct result of the 1st Amendment.
Indeed. Wasn't this exactly was Greece was already doing with half of the population?
No it wasn't. Greece's public sector is at 22%. Which is not small, but it is not the thing that got the country into trouble. Even the UK has more public sector employees let alone the northern european countries like Denmark and Norway that go up to 35%. [1] Anyway, the word universal on UBI does not mean "half the population" nor 22% of them, and that distinction is quite important.
Greece's main issues where the same issues that most countries face, only a bit bigger. Corruption was rampaging. The local (and european) elite were bathing themselves with public money. They owned the media and the governement for the last 20 years. The public insurance institutions' assets have been handed away again and again on pyramid schemes like the stockmarket bubble in the late 90's (Greece's stockmarket soared to 7000, only to return to 1000 a few months later). Public money were been wasted on a huge military budget as a result of under the table agreements between Greece and the US, Germany, France and sometimes Russia. At some point they even legitimized corruption and getting a cut for every agreement. Sure, there are many issues on public spending and efficiency that should've been improved, but that was only a small part of the problem.
Claiming that Greece has a UBI of a sorts is not backed up with data unfortunately. Greece has had issues with income inequality before the crisis struck, but with the austerity measures and the economy taking a dive, this has only gotten worse [2]
The problem with taxing the rich folks is not that they will move their money away. They are already doing that. You can not compete with tax havens. But what is evident from the recent Panama leak (and the swiss and Lux before it) is that governments are not only unwilling to tax them, but they are part of the scheme. You can not honestly believe that the US can not force Panama, the UK the Cayman or the EU Luxembourg to play nice and hand over the data.
[1] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_countries_by_public_sector
[2] http://touchstoneblog.org.uk/2015/04/how-greek-austerity-has-stoked-inequality/
Communists have the unique distinction of killing approximately 100,000,000 people in the last century.
Quoting "The black book of communism"? Really? That books is considered a joke by many scholars, lets say that it is at least controversial. Even if you argue 100mil victims of communist regimes, you can hardly say that it is a "unique distinction". Capitalism has killed much more, fasism has had its share too. It is a mute arguement. If you want to argue against communism/capitalism/fasism, etc, at least do it with some serious arguments like the economics, liberties, their feasibility, which system is more just, etc.
America ain't communist, and communism seems to be on the decline. So it is kind of hard to disprove that the red-scare tactics didn't work.
France also ain't communist. And this proves?
Unix: Some say the learning curve is steep, but you only have to climb it once. -- Karl Lehenbauer