For example, the US Civil war killed vast numbers of Caucasian Americans, but it was not genocide because they were Caucasian ^B^B^B^B^B^B white ^B^B^B^B^B I mean because they were killed for attempting violent overthrow of the US government.
Likewise, the Japanese were not killed because they were Asian. They were killed for starting a war of conquest and including the United States when we imposed sanctions on them for that war of conquest.
What part of it did I miss?
Let's see:
Japan invaded China and Manchuria, killing 300k in Shanghai alone.
The US tried the darling of the left, sanctions.
Then, while the Japanese were in Washington, in negotiation with the US on resolving the conflict peacefully, the Japanese bombed Pearl Harbor one Sunday morning. That afternoon, the Japanese ambassador delivered the declaration of war.
Along the way, there was the Bataan Death March (definitely genocide).
On Saipan, the US had translators and loudspeakers trying to convince the Japanese civilians that they would not be harmed. The Japanese military told them the Americans would kill them. They jumped off a cliff into the sea. Can you have genocide within the same racial group.
Before Hiroshima and Nagasaki, we asked the Japanese to surrender. Sound of crickets as the Japanese, with their custom, killed the peace proposal with silence.
Then the B-29s were sent out, not with bombs, but risking flak, etc., to drop leaflets telling everyone in town to get out or face a new and powerful bomb. They chose to stay, working in the Mitsubishi Torpedo Works, the shipyards and other armaments plants.
After the first bomb, the US waited three days. Still the sound of crickets from the Imperial Palace.
So, your definition of genocide is striking back in force after an unprovoked attack? Interesting definition.
And, once the Japanese surrendered, we spent millions feeding their people. Genocide?
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