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Comment Re:Perversion of the law's intent (Score 1) 371

There is a difference between a recording of a work and the work itself though.
If I recorded the song, I wouldn't get royalties from it *(actually, I might get performance royalties, depending on collective bargaining agreements between complicated jurisdictions. But they are frighteningly small).
I _could_ make money from selling the CD, but I would have to pay the copyright holder his/her cut.I would continue to do so until copyrights ended (25 years in this hypothetical case).
After that, re-recording is just like making a record of Bach's music; nobody gets much in the way of royalties, just performance, wich is tiny, and more akin to residuals.
So the original creator doesn't get to reset the copyright by simply re-recording.

*As an example, I just got a check from the AFM (Musician's Union) for _performance_ royalties because a song I played on is in RockBand II.
$230

Drinks on me

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