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Comment Re:First Amendment implications? (Score 1) 646

So you think it's perfectly fine if the Federal government allows a trademark for a dating service called "Republican Connection", but prohibits one called "Lesbian Connection", because the word "lesbian" is offensive to someone? Or allows a trademark for a cemetary called "The Arms Of God", but denies one for "Atheist's Rest" on the grounds that a specifically atheist cemetary is an offensive concept?

Sure. Trademarks are not a right and they are only granted at the behest of the framework that Congress created.

Is there any line, or can the Government capriciously grant or deny any trademark for any reason because "[trademarks] are not a right"?

The USPTO can do whatever it wants within the statutory framework laid out by Congress.

I'm not saying that "Redskins" would fall under an equal protection jurisdiction, but your response seems to slew too far in the opposite direction.

My response aligns with 100+ years of statutory law and much case law.

Comment Re:My two cents (Score 1) 646

Though they are technically in Washington DC, one would suspect that the Equal Protection Clause would say otherwise.

Maybe only those ignorant of statutory and case law. Trademarks derive from Congress' Commerce Clause power. They are not constitutionally protected. The Trademark statutes even specifically mention that trademarks that are disparaging to both those who are living or dead can be denied and cancelled.

There is even recent case law In Re Geller 13-1412. You can even read the ruling here: http://www.cafc.uscourts.gov/i... where there is also lots of other case law citations to back up their ruling.

Comment Re:First Amendment implications? (Score 4, Informative) 646

It's not. These people are just completely ignorant of both statutory and case law around trademarks. Trademarks are not First Amendment speech. Never have been never will be. Trademarks exist at the behest of Congress and the Trademark Act. Congress could revoke every single registered trademark if they wanted to be simply abolishing the Trademark act.

As I posted in another part of this discussion thestatutes on trademarks has allowed for both the refusal of trademarks that are disparaging.

No trademark by which the goods of the applicant may be distinguished from the goods of others shall be refused registration on the principal register on account of its nature unless it—

(a) Consists of or comprises immoral, deceptive, or scandalous matter; or matter which may disparage or falsely suggest a connection with persons, living or dead, institutions, beliefs, or national symbols, or bring them into contempt, or disrepute; or a geographical indication which, when used on or in connection with wines or spirits, identifies a place other than the origin of the goods and is first used on or in connection with wines or spirits by the applicant on or after one year after the date on which the WTO Agreement (as defined in section 3501 (9) of title 19) enters into force with respect to the United States.

http://www.law.cornell.edu/usc...

Comment Re:Something is wrong with these reintepretations. (Score 1) 646

That's great, but Trademark law is not based on the First Amendment so what you brought up basically has no relation to the case at hand. Trademark law statute explicitly allows for the refusal or revocation of disparaging trademarks. This has been part of statutory law for decades.

No trademark by which the goods of the applicant may be distinguished from the goods of others shall be refused registration on the principal register on account of its nature unless it—

(a) Consists of or comprises immoral, deceptive, or scandalous matter; or matter which may disparage or falsely suggest a connection with persons, living or dead, institutions, beliefs, or national symbols, or bring them into contempt, or disrepute; or a geographical indication which, when used on or in connection with wines or spirits, identifies a place other than the origin of the goods and is first used on or in connection with wines or spirits by the applicant on or after one year after the date on which the WTO Agreement (as defined in section 3501 (9) of title 19) enters into force with respect to the United States.

http://www.law.cornell.edu/usc...

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