All throughout this thread I've posted data from verifiable sources.
That data may suggest particular policies.

How is that an extremist position?
If evidence is not a tool for affecting reasonable change what would you suggest?

So you're willing to dismiss wikipedia and peer reviewed scientific publications, which cite their sources and give detailed descriptions of their methodologies, as bullshit but the best counter example you can give is a youtube video from a site who's stated mission is:
"1. Identify the enemy and understand his nature
2. Devise ways to attack and neutralize him"

Please see my posts elsewhere in my thread where I linked a study examining firearms rates controlled for income.

I didn't say civilized. That's far to loaded and subjective a term.
I said developed. That's far less subjective since the CIA has a list of those countries taken from the OECD.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/...

While I would personally not favor an absolute ban on guns I have not found any data that suggests such a ban would result in increased death rates.
Could you provide a link to a study which supports this?

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/...

There does appear to be some substitution effect but even so, overall homicide rates are significantly higher in the US than in other developed countries.
They are about 4 times as high in the US as in German, for example.

And this is the crux of the impasse.
You will hold your position despite any evidence that can be brought up.

I will stay right here and hope that reason can persuade future generations of the folly of your dogma.

Here's a list of overall homicide rates by country.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/...

You have to go pretty far down the list before you find a developed country other than the US.

Are you suggesting that black people are just more violent than non-blacks?

Once study that I linked above
http://www.amjmed.com/article/...
states that while non-lethal crimes are similar across developed countries, firearms related deaths are much higher in the US.

The list of per capita firearms related deaths also shows that while France which has a very large black population (albiet lower than that of the US) it doesn't have a per capita firearms death rate any where near that of the US.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/...

You also seem to be ignoring the large poor immigrant populations in many developed countries who do not seem to be shooting people at rates anywhere close to the US.

http://www.amjmed.com/article/...

I posted that elsewhere in this thread. Even if you control for income the US (which has the laxest gun control laws in the developed world) has significantly more gun violence than other developed countries.

Here's a study looking at firearms related deaths controlled for income.
http://www.amjmed.com/article/...

I'll admit that I only read the abstract and not the whole article but it suggests that while socioeconomic factors may be relevant, the US still has a much higher rate of firearms related deaths than other developed countries.

I wouldn't draw that conclusion.

Americans are probably more likely to shoot someone with a gun when they have one but I would be hesitant to estimate how much more likely.

I would think it's mostly because of Germany's restrictions on the types of guns you can get and the laws around carrying them.

The US has more guns than people and (from personal anecdotes) gun owners typically own more than one gun. From what I've seen in Germany people who do own guns also own more than one. I know people in Germany who own a few different rifles and shotguns depending on what they're hunting. In the US it's that plus semi-auto rifles and handguns.

From that same link you can see that the per capita firearms related homicide rate in the US is 3.43 vs 0.07 in Germany.
That's nearly 50 times as high.

I have not been able to find data on how many of those are intentional or unjustified.
If that data is available it would for very small sample sizes and wide open to interpretation since we can never truly know the intent of a shooter and justifiability is highly subjective (as you can see from the from the debates on many of the recent high profile firearms deaths in the US).

But if we were to assume that every single firearms death in Germany was unjustified (ie only outlaws have guns) you would still need need nearly 98% of firearms related homicides in the US to be justified (ie almost only good guys are shooting people) to get down to Germany's level. Possible but not very likely.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/...
There you go. The US is ahead by almost 3:1.

Germany's per capita firearms related death rate is about 10% that of the US.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/...