I see the answer is no -- you don't have anything useful to add to the dialogue other than picking at one word of my original post, having precisely nothing to do with its thrust. You must be a joy at parties.
To the high court, there was no need to apply such a standard. Use the common definition of the word.
Oh, so they replaced what you call a "standard" with what you call a "definition," eh? That creates a bit of a problem for you. Page 9: "Under the standard announced today . . ." (emphasis mine). Apparently you do agree, then, that "standard" and "definition" are interchangeable in this context?
As I've said over and over, and now for the last time, the Supreme Court did indeed provide a definition for what constitutes an "exceptional case." That would be the part after the words, "An 'exceptional case,' then, is . . ." They used the dictionary definition for the word "exceptional" to inform their definition of the term "exceptional case." There's no "same definition that every one [sic] uses" for "exceptional case" -- please do share one if you have it. I'll not hold my breath.
I feel quite comfortable predicting that, over the next several months if not weeks/days, there will be a large percentage of fee-shifting motions filed that contain the language (or very similar language, since my experience with you strongly suggests I need to spell that out) "the Supreme Court has held that 'an exceptional case is . . ." followed by the exact text from Octane Fitness that I've cited repeatedly, and arguing why the case at hand meets that definition, and a comparatively small percentage (maybe zero, but you can't account for knuckleheads) that ignore the Court's definition of "exceptional case" and just try to argue based on the dictionary definition of "exceptional."
And, with that, I'm done troll-feeding for today.