Firstly, I am no economist nor statistician. But, isn't there a fundamental difference between the logical statistics of a modeled economy (regardless of how accurately modeled it may be - which is the point I think you're really trying to drive home -- a fundamental flaw in this model) and the statistics of any individual factor or sector of the overall algorithm used?
What I'm saying is this: You cannot claim that because some unbeknown factor will cause irrationality within the market, that the market is now irrational. Rationale in marketing is implicitly based on the irrationality of our purchases - there are huge, successful companies that, when taken a step back and looked at with a grain of salt, do not represent any real form of reasoning. Marketing, in and of itself, as a huge factor in economics and "the market," is inherently irrational and meant to appeal to the senses.
No. We are talking about the rationality of the market itself, and not necessarily about just the individual actors.
This is where your argument falls apart. You are begging the question.
