I'm willing to give the GP a little credit - mostly because I'm willing to guess he has his terms mixed up (or I am having a bout of kindness). Now I would like to point out quickly that their is a relation between the governance structural (liberal democracy, monarchy, etc) and the political economy of a given nation. Overarching trends tend to be that the more a government resembles a unity government the more the political economy will be dominated by the government (for example the UK in the 70's) - and I'm not going into the hotbed of communist countries and their political economies.
Now what does this have to do with the populations interaction with the government? None (except that in a state led economy the average person 'interacts' with the government a lot more), the populations interaction (and the power over) is only based on how the political culture functions - which changes based on the rules and norms governing a given society