A pay gap does not exist if men and women are receiving equal pay for similar work.
Yes and no. Overt discrimination probably isn't at play if men and women are receiving equal pay for similar work. A pay gap may still exist, and may still be something we want to address. For instance, perhaps men and women generally aren't engaged in "similar work" because women are socially conditioned from a young age not to pursue certain fields? Perhaps men and women aren't engaged in "similar work" because women bear the brunt of child bearing and child rearing and we're doing very little to mitigate the effect those things have on women's ability to work? Etc.
Another thing to note is that it may not be the case that men and women are receiving equal pay for similar work. The efforts I've seen that adjust for profession, experience, years out of the work force, etc. show a persistent ~5% advantage for men. That's smaller than the number usually bandied about in the popular media, but it's not nothing.
when men are in oversupply, the dating culture emphasizes courtship and monogamy. But when women are in oversupply—as they are today at most U.S. colleges and universities—men play the field and women are more likely to be treated as sex objects.
What I said is that in the Bay Area, where men outnumber women, it's a "woman's market" and they can afford to be more choosy and less promiscuous. That seems to match up with this guy's claim.
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