That's not likely.
Assume Joe "The Plumber" drinks 2 beers every night when he comes home. Assume this is not lo-alcohol beer but regular plain old lager. If Joe Plumber is an American, it's a weaker, more tasteless beer regardless. But let's put Joe Plumber in the UK, Ireland or call 'm "Jan Loodgieter" (NL), "Calle Rörmokaren" (SE/NO) or "Hans Installateur" (GER) or "Tomàs Zednik" (Czech R). Let's assume he drinks beers in the same way his dad and granddad before him. Good, strong beers, fine, tasty beers in pints, boots, strange Belgian glasses and whatnot. Let's assume all of these people drink these beers anyway, with or without the chemical in it.
Simply putting this chemical into the beer will not likely change the habits of all of these Joes. In France and the rest of the world, wine consumption didn't exactly triple when an article about the French paradox was published either. Partially because Joe might not read the newspaper because he's too busy in the pub. So having said that, how could this have an adverse affect?