As I did say in my previous post, but you omitted when quoting it, this might stand up if all parties agreed to the arbitration.
I didn't directly quote it but I did acknowledge your "might" speculation right there in my third sentence. My point is there's no "might" about it - as long as the arbitration clause applies to both parties and the arbiter is a neutral one, it's a perfectly legal and enforceable clause... In the US, obviously. TFA was in a US paper discussing corporations operating in the US and referenced a number of relevant US court decisions, so I did not assume we were discussing elsewhere.