IANAL, but I do follow legal issues quite closely, and read a lot of legal rulings. Absent ambiguity in the black letter law, which isn't present in this case, judges don't try to deduce intent. I'm fairly confident that in court it would be read exactly the way I'm reading it.
Also, I note that you still haven't provided a citation to any contrary law. In a separate thread another poster is telling me that there is state law to the effect of what you're saying, and claiming that it is identical across all 50 states. I'll see if he can find a citation (I've examined the law of two states and not found anything).