No., I'm saying that doesn't happen. It's only happened a handful of times, EVER, and the courts fixed it.
It happens every time property is seized and used without an associated criminal conviction. Why in the hell is this concept so hard for people, if the property is used or the proceeds of a crime PROVE IT! Anything else is such a prima face violation of the 4th and 5th amendment that I am surprised the founding fathers haven't risen from the grave to kick the ass of whoever supports this crap.