Okay, but only if you include the "software" and "data" as well, which presumably has some physiological component that should be weighted far in excess of the direct physical alterations. I give you the anecdote of the African student in America who was at long last informed that women here consider strong body odor to be unpleasant rather than attractive. Overnight his bathing behavior changes dramatically in response to the minute physiological change associated with learning of a cultural difference (and much to the relief of his classmates).
Meanwhile there's plenty of people who have suffered traumatic brain trauma with no apparent change in behavior - the brain does a lot more than just regulate behavior after all. So: significant physiological changes do not imply significant behavioral changes, nor do significant behavioral changes imply significant physiological changes. Nor do the presence of environmental contaminates necessarily imply changes in either.
Neurobiology is complicated. And as such any claims of a specific relationship should be accompanied by evidence - if you can't even muster anecdotal evidence to support your claim then it rightfully deserves to be discarded as a "pet theory", even if it seems superficially obvious that a connection "should" exist.