If you are just making the claim that women are motivated differently than men without regard to the REASON for their motivation, then why did you respond to my post in the first place, since such a claim is not contradictory to anything I wrote?
The claim I made is contradictory to what you believe. You believe a claim was made over the capability of females, I corrected you and said that GP made no such claim. Let me refresh ... you said (repeatedly, but I'll just quote the one post here):
I would ask you to post the best study showing:
1) Women are naturally less capable of competing against men in the CS field because of physiological differences between men and women.
I replied with
Strawman - no one said anything about capability.
You are making an argument against a strawman. GP (that you replied to) never said anything about capability. No one brought capability into it but you.
I do not want to misrepresent your viewpoint or to have a discussion where we are talking around eachother, so please clarify:
1) Do you believe there is conclusive evidence that artificial factors (e.g. cultural, social, economic, et cetera) engender the differences in measured motivations to enter computer science, at least in part?
There is no evidence of that, none that I could find at any rate, so if it exists please post a link.
2) Do you believe there is conclusive evidence that natural factors (i.e. congenital, morphological differences between men and women) must be responsible in whole or in part for differences in motivation in entering computer science?
There are two questions there. Firstly, there is a ton of evidence that natural factors (as you use the term) are responsible for the majority, if not all, of the motivations humans experience; the exceptions are few and far between. For the second part, I've not seen nor heard of any study that found that CS, in particular, was an exception to this rule. You are welcome to find and post a link to evidence that the characteristic "motivation to do CS" is an exception.
However, science is not performed by "proving" a hypothesis, but by failing to disprove a hypothesis. Falsifiability. Let's start with an example:
The claim/assertion: Women are not entering CS due to societal influence
How can we prove this wrong? What experiment can we run which, if successful, shows that the statement is incorrect? Perhaps we could raise the experimental group of children in gender neutral isolation and leave the control group in the real world? That won't pass ethics review but it's a good start. Another option that won't pass ethics review is to forcefully raise the experimental group of children as the opposite gender in isolation from the real world and leave the control group in the real world.
If you do either of the above (somehow you managed to sneak it past ethics review) and at the end of the decades long experiment you find that there is a 50:50 ratio of genders in CS in the experimental group, then congratulations - you failed to prove the assertion incorrect so some weight may be added to your assertion. Doesn't mean that your claim is correct, only that the attempt to prove it wrong failed. Only after many varied repeated (and replicated) falsifying attempts can you start calling your hypothesis "commonly accepted" (still not a "fact" though).
This is the biggest reason that SJW's run into the ire of many respectable scientists. Just because studies have failed to prove the "genetic reason" they make the assumption that the "environmental impact reason" must be true. They fail to realise that the failure to prove/disprove a claim doesn't lend weight to any opposing claim. I.e. failing to prove that nature is the reason doesn't automatically make the nurture claim true.
You repeatedly make the same claim. Your basic claim is: Since [whatever year you choose] women in CS has declined, then you go on to make the incorrect leap that due to human biology/physiology/psychology not changing significantly, the decline MUST be attributable to nurture and not nature. That is the basic argument most SJW's make and it is wrong from just about any conceivable viewpoint other than the political ones.
Just because human biology/physiology/psychology hasn't changed, that in no way, shape or manner suggests that the reason for the decline is nurture.
For example,
it could simply be that the relative popularity of CS amongst women in [whichever year you chose] was down to nurture. Maybe women were pressured into those roles - heaven knows that women in the past were under a lot more pressure than women today.
Or maybe women today are free to choose what they want to do, women in [your chosen year] were not.
Or maybe it's due to some physiological characteristics that have changed.
Or maybe the women didn't change, it might have been the men that have changed in biology.
Or maybe it is due to nurture, but not the way you think (perhaps treating the boys and girls gender-neutrally leaves them with different preferences).
Or maybe ....
The trouble with the "it's nurture, dummy" arguments is that there is no evidence for it. To get the required evidence would require breaking quite a few research ethics rules along the way. There are way too many alternatives for anyone to say that, conclusively, it must be nurture, and not nature. The reverse argument applies.