See, that is where you are misunderstanding my initial post(assuming that you actually bothered to follow the thread of conversation). The presence of those other, uninvolved persons changes the situation so that, according to previous court rulings, you no longer have any expectation of privacy. In which case, as the courts have ruled, I am allowed to record you to my heart's content, even if you are NOT committing any crimes. In any situation where those being recorded have no expectation of privacy, such as when they are in a room full of random individuals (say, a school classroom).
Now, in the situation you described, there are all kinds of reasons why the recording would be legal. First, since you postulated that third-parties would be paid to not give consent, you are postulating that those present knew in advance that there would be a recording. Courts have repeatedly ruled that if you carry on a conversation which you know is being recorded, you are implicitly giving your consent to being recorded. Second, you are postulating that these people are being paid to cover-up your crime (being paid to not consent to being recorded is an attempt to prevent the acquisition of evidence to prove a crime is being committed), which is a crime.
So, to re-iterate: the exception to the all-party consent law of recording criminal activity does not apply because not all of those present were committing a crime. However, the boy was not guilty of violating the wire-tap law because he was recording the conversation in a place where people do not, and should not, have a reasonable expectation of privacy.