Anyhow the definition (and the existance) of hell is disputed among the denominations, so it would be better to skip it entirely, otherwise this is going to be a long and worthless debate.

Why? It's *clearly* described in the Bible as a lake of fire. It's where unbelievers, adulterers, etc go. There are lots of specifics on what it's like, who will go there and why.

Of course, the whole concept of Hell is pretty barbaric. It's one of those "hard parts" that some "Christians" like to pretend doesn't exist.

But the joke is on them: the more they go around claiming Hell doesn't exist, the higher the chance they'll find out themselves.

So you put all that effort into finding a Bible that's not altered...... only to butcher it yourself??

Looks like we can extend Godwin's law with comparing people to Glenn Beck :-)

You seem awfully intent on dodging the issue. All you're doing is trying to distract me with a red herring.

I ask again: can you or can you not back up your claim with scripture?

to signify means to convey by signs

Wait, so you're saying that whether or not we take the *opposite* of what's written in those chapters depends on the interpretation of a single word? Talk about convenience! This absurdity is obviously false. Simply look at the very next verse:

Rev 1:2 Who bare record of the word of God, and of the testimony of Jesus Christ, and of all things that he saw.

If we look at other translations:
NIV/ISV: "He made it known by..."
NLT/ESV: "sent an angel to present this revelation"
NASB: "sent and communicated it"
GWT: "He sent this revelation through his angel..."
ASV: "he sent and made it clear by his angel"

Etcetera, etcetera.

Obviously, the writers did not intend a symbolic interpretation, otherwise they would have made this abundantly clear. It is obvious that neither the writers, nor the translators had a symbolic interpretation in mind.

The writer isn't actually confused.

Then he's misinformed, as are you: Jesus did not go to Hell. See the original text and the original meaning(s) of the word used. Also look up Hades: it's not a singular entity.

As others here have already pointed out, the location of the mark could itself be symbolic.

Could be or not be. Why not go with what's actually *written* there instead of imagining things. Besides, the subject of private interpretation has already been addressed:

2 Peter 1:20 Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation.
2 Peter 1:21 For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost.

But I guess you'll argue that this passage was symbolic as well.......

Wait, are you comparing me to a paranoid loon like Glenn Beck because.... I backed up my claim using a Bible quote?

Why are you so offended by the Bible that you have to dismiss it so?

No: the Bible clearly specifies the location of the mark. It's the right hand or forehead.

If you say "no no, they will NOT receive a mark", then you're pretty much saying that the Bible is BS: you can take the opposite meaning whenever it suits you.

Private interpretation is forbidden per 2 Peter 1:20-21:

1:20 Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation.
1:21 For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost.

If you're just going to give your own spin to it, why bother reading the thing at all?

I can sum up *your* Bible right here:

"Your intuition, opinions and feelings of guilt are 100% backed up by the Creator of the Universe, regardless of whatever anyone else says."

Yeah, okay, but no can really agree which parts are or aren't symbolic.

So you can pretty much map any opinion you want on the Bible and claim your opinion is supported by the Creator of the Universe Himself.

Interesting. Can you explain further? I looked up the first paragraph and it's this:

"Revelation 1:1 The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave unto him, to shew unto his servants things which must shortly come to pass; and he sent and signified it by his angel unto his servant John:"

It doesn't say anything about using symbolic language. Also not in subsequent paragraphs.

Secondly, you are confusing Hell with Sheol, the place where all the souls of the dead go. However amusing the idea may be, the Bible most definitely does not claim that Jesus went to Hell.

Thirdly, your claim that the mark is not a physical mark is easily refuted by Rev. 13:16, which even mentions the *location* of this mark.

"Revelation 13:16 And he causeth all, both small and great, rich and poor, free and bond, to receive a mark in their right hand, or in their foreheads:"

You have to remember that half of people are below average

If half is below average and half is above average, do people who are average exist? :-)

Well, the thing is that it's impossible to have an intellectually equal conversation if both sides don't have equal access to information.

So how are we to have a discussion about censorship with someone who's actually being censored?

They want a segregated society based on gender.

We don't.