Again, that depends on how you read the account in Genesis. Verse 1:1 records the creation, clearly. But does that mean that the rest of the chapter follows immediately in time? The way I parse it, the earth existed waste and void at some point after the creation of 1:1. Yet Psalms says it was created anything but void and waste. Taken in combination with Jeremiah 4 and Isaiah 14, this would imply a break in time between 1:1 and the rest of the first chapter which I feel shows the earth post initial judgment of Satan's rebellion. The rest of the chapter just records the restoration of the earth to a habitable state.
It isn't even completely certain that this judgment was worldwide. Perhaps Satan's empire was located in the Mediterranean Basin. The destruction alluded to in 1:2 could have just been located around the Mediterranean Sea when it filled - that sea is referred to as the deep in other spots. So it might not have affected anything in other parts of the earth, but just the huge destruction of the Mediterranean basin when the Atlantic poured in.
In addition, although reading the first chapters of Genesis makes it seem like the fall of man happened in just a few days, there is nothing to say just how long a time period passed between their creation and their fall. Six days of work is clear getting to the point of their creation. But then, it gets fuzzy. It also doesn't say when aging started - where the age of Adam would have begun to matter and be counted in years. After all, part of the punishment was to be cut off from the tree of life implying as long as they were in the garden with access to the tree they would have lived indefinitely. I'm of the belief that the ages recorded in the Bible for them were how long they lived post getting kicked out of Eden.
This fits nicely with the fossil record as well. There are many branches of the ancestors to modern man. They all stop within a very short, geologically speaking, period of time. Only modern man continues (or was created by God when the earth was restored).
We'll not know the truth till heaven. But I'm not of the opinion that the history God has recorded in His word would lead anyone to disbelieve in Him. Its purpose may not be science, but He also would not have wanted any excuses about science giving people an excuse to disbelieve the rest of the Bible's truth. This explanation works for me and makes things compatible between science and the Bible. It may not be completely correct, but it is close enough that I don't worry about it. It's kind of like Noah's flood. I see that as probably being the flooding of the Black Sea via the Bosporus. It didn't have to involve the whole world. It just had to involve the area where Satan's angels were trying to pollute the line of Adam's descendants to Christ. Noah just had to save the local fauna if it the flood was big, affecting his entire world, but not worldwide. From the middle of the Black Sea in an ark like boat, it would have appeared to his eyes as if the entire world was flooded, and that was what he recorded.
I'm not saying that God couldn't have created and placed every physical portion of the universe in such a way that it appeared to have been created billions of years ago but actually been done 6,000 or so years ago. It just doesn't seem like something He would have done. It seems more likely the deceiver would try to warp believers in the past into believing something that he could use today to get people to not believe in God.
Just my 2c.